Once again, a long post from the Preacher. Please be patient with me, the question comes at the end of the post. Meanwhile, refill your coffee cup: I hope you enjoy the read.
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I love God's word.
I have many copies, both old and new. I have several translations, both old and new; for example, I own a reproduction copy of the original 1611 Authorized Version of the Bible, I preach from the New American Standard Bible (1995), while I love reading the English Standard Version. I once used the New International Version, but no longer. The publishers broke their promise to the National Association of Evangelicals to not continue down the gender neutral road and issued the TNIV and the NIV(r) which tried to be politically correct by removing all the "unnecessary" references to gender, such as son, father and so forth. This was not as simple as it sounds because it also required changing the tenses (past, present, future, and neutral) and it required changing nouns to pronouns, and pronouns to clauses, and so forth.
I use several Bible software programs for reading and for sermon preparation. I have used Quickverse Platinum since it was a project begun in the garage of its author (the program, not the Bible!), but I am using it less and less because of the other programs I run, which are more useful to me, and then the updates make me feel like I am buying the same materials over and over. I also use WordSearch8, because I find the support materials useful and accessible, as well as thought provoking. WS8 comes with a program called ZIPscript that allows me to insert text into sermon materials without retyping the passages; a similar program is InstaVerse which runs behind the other programs and lets me have Gods Word on popup demand when the cursor pauses over a biblical reference such as John 3:16.
But one of my favorites, and thus most often used, programs is BibleWorks 7. It is a very powerful (though expensive at $349) program that keys to the original languages, with 17 Greek editions, 15 Hebrew works, 39 English versions, and many more international languages like Arabic, Spanish, Chinese, Korean, German, and many more. BW7 also has instant help with the voice, tense, and mood of the original languages, and the Textual Criticism Apparatii.
Doesn't this make the case for those atheists who claim that the Bible is not reliable since there are so many translations? No.
And here is why: the word of God, in the original languages, is Gods Word; there are many translators whose opinions will vary depending on several factors like their commitment to Gods Word, their life experiences, country of origin, education, and world view (to name just a few factors). Unless Bible readers are willing and able to make the commitment to read the Bible in the original languages, they are stuck with reading translations.
I once read about a renown scholar, who was accustomed to working with the original languages, who read a new translation in his mother tongue (Creole) which had not previously had its own translation. Reading Gods Word in his milk tongue, he was moved to tears, despite years of faith and scholarship in English, Hebrew, and Greek.
Why is this important to me? As the book Translating Truth says this: "(1) ... the Bible repeatedly claims that every one of its words (in the original languages) is a word spoken to us by God, and is therefore of utmost importance; and (2) that this fact provides a strong argument in favor of an "essentially literal" (or word-for-word) translation as opposed to "dynamic equivalent" (or thought-for-thought) translation." We need translations because of our language limitations, but we must stick with the facts, the details; as Sgt. Friday (of Dragnet fame) is supposed to have said "Just the facts, Ma'am; just the facts."
Words have meanings, and definitions drive results; meaning is what Bible readers are after. So what the Bible says is important, it is what God has deigned to say to us. For instance, John 2:1-5 says: (1) On the third day there was a wedding in Cana of Galilee, and the mother of Jesus was there; (2) and both Jesus and His disciples were invited to the wedding. (3) When the wine ran out, the mother of Jesus said to Him, "They have no wine." (4) And Jesus said to her, "Woman, what does that have to do with us? My hour has not yet come." (5) His mother said to the servants, "Whatever He says to you, do it," (NASB).
Another English translation says "Two days later". What does the Greek say? th hmera th trith "the day the third." Now, that does not make sense in English because we say "the third day," but the meaning is understandable. The Greek was also written in the active voice: "the mother of Jesus says," "Jesus says to her," "His mother says." Again the English translators have rendered it to conform to Standard English practice of writing these things in the past tense. The Greek language, and especially Mark in the New Testament, wrote for the dramatic effect of present tense, active voice stories.
Why does the text say "the mother of Jesus" instead of saying "Mary?" I think no one would dispute the fact that Mary was Jesus' mother; certainly no one who takes the Gospels seriously would challenge that fact. Why does John not name her? Surely there was a time when Jesus would have called her "mother," or "mom." But no more, the vocative address here is gu,nai: "woman." But the fact that Jesus loved and cared for her is seen where Jesus gave charge of His mother's welfare and care to John as one of His seven last words from the cross. See what Jesus said to Mary, how He addressed her?
John 19:26-27 When Jesus therefore saw His mother, and the disciple whom He loved standing nearby, He said to His mother, "Woman, behold, your son!" Then He said to the disciple, "Behold, your mother!" And from that hour the disciple took her into his own household.
See that italicized word "household?" The reason it is in italics is that the translators have supplied that word for "the clarity of the text." Sometimes the clarification is helpful, sometimes not so much because it is often the opinion of the translator. But once again, Mary's name is not there, and Jesus addresses her as gu,nai. Why?
I think it's because the emphasis belongs on Jesus, and not on His mother. When Jesus said "Woman, what does that have to do with us? My hour has not yet come;" was he saying He would not do anything for them? Was He saying "Okay, but not yet"? There are many examples in the stories of the New Testament where Jesus told people that His hour had not yet come.
John 7:8 "Go up to the feast yourselves; I do not go up to this feast because My time has not yet fully come."
John 7:30 They were seeking therefore to seize Him; and no man laid his hand on Him, because His hour had not yet come.
John 8:20 These words He spoke in the treasury, as He taught in the temple; and no one seized Him, because His hour had not yet come.
John 12:23 And Jesus answered them, saying, "The hour has come for the Son of Man to be glorified.
John 13:1 Now before the Feast of the Passover, Jesus knowing that His hour had come that He would depart out of this world to the Father, having loved His own who were in the world, He loved them to the end.
Why was Mary trying to force His hand over the embarrassment of running out of wine? Repeatedly people would do what He told them not to do, telling everyone what He told them to tell no one! Why then did Jesus do His first miracle of turning water into wine, if His time was "not yet come?" His mother was importunate, telling the servants to do whatever He told them to do. She did not take "no" for an answer, and the servants were obedient to do as He said.
Remember Jesus' story of the importunate widow in Luke 18:1-5?
Luke 18:1-5
Now He was telling them a parable to show that at all times they ought to pray and not to lose heart, [2] saying, "In a certain city there was a judge who did not fear God and did not respect man. [3] "There was a widow in that city, and she kept coming to him, saying, 'Give me legal protection from my opponent.' [4] "For a while he was unwilling; but afterward he said to himself, 'Even though I do not fear God nor respect man, [5] yet because this widow bothers me, I will give her legal protection, otherwise by continually coming she will wear me out.' "
Now, for my question. Could the importunate widow of Luke 18 have been a story Jesus recalled from the life of His mother? Could Mary have been the character that inspired His parable? The Greek (and the English) text give us no such clues, and there is no indication at all that this was Mary. Still, at the wedding in Cana of Galilee Mary was very importunate, even manipulative.
The end of verse 5 of Luke 18: "otherwise by continually coming she will wear me out," (NASB). i[na mh. eivj te,loj evrcome,nh u`pwpia,zh| meÅ Literally, "So that in the end, she not give me a black eye." Freburg Lexicon: "literally, in boxing beat black and blue."
Was Mary (in John 2) giving Jesus a black eye? What if Jesus had continued to ignore Mary, and the need for more wine for the wedding feast? Would not Jesus have been embarassed along with the bride and groom? "Do whatever He tells you to do," and then Jesus said nothing at all to them? "Woman, what is that to me?"
Is Mary the importunate widow of Luke 18?
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